Posted by Mary Augustina on July 20, 2004 at 17:27:44
In Reply to: Correction of misunderstanding posted by OldtimerToo on July 20, 2004 at 14:49:02:
I fail to see how this post corrects your misunderstanding of my background in scripture studies. Both your hypotheses (1 & 2) are incorrect.
You asked me to cite the source of my exegesis, and I did. I will state once again that my source materials are found the Jerome Biblical Commentary on the Gospel of St. John and the Jerusalem Bible. I did not initially cite the Jerome Biblical Commentary because information regarding the Aristotlian & Platonic philosophical assumptions found in St. John's Gospel is common knowlege among scripture scholars, regardless of whether they were trained in catholic, orthodox, or protestant Christian institutions of higher education.
You may love philosophy, but you are apparently no scripture scholar. If you are indeed a scholar of any sort, please take the time to make your own analysis of the things I stated in the post "Why do you evade discussing the topic?"
In other words, do your own thinking about what I have specifically laid out as my exegesis on John 1:1 in THREE (read 'em) posts and quit citing your faulty assumptions about me and posting source materials on a different topic as an excuse for making a rational, empirically-based response to my exegesis.