Posted by Mary Agustina de Franco on July 19, 2004 at 11:06:22
In Reply to: Dubious Exegesis on John 1:1-5 posted by OldtimerToo on July 19, 2004 at 10:02:29:
I have made no references to gnosticism in this Exegesis, and I'm not sure why you brought it up.
I have stated that the Gospel of St. John was written within the context of a hellenized faith community in the first century A.D. that had historical roots in the first century B.C., where we see the initial hellenization of Jewish religious thought in texts such as the Book of Wisdom.
I have also stated that scripture scholars who do systematic, empirical exegesis have established connections between the school of thought and religious teachings found in The Book of Wisdom, written in the first century B.C. by a hellenized Jew, and the Gospel of St. John. If this were a scholarly paper, I would have cited my sources. However, the sources on which this argument is based can be found in The Jerome Biblical Commentary. I may have been incorrect to link the written tradition of hellenized Jews to the Dead Sea Scrolls of the Essenes, but I believe there is evidence of hellenic influence in the teachings of the Essene faith community, also. I'd certainly welcome evidence that this particular assertion is incorrect or more complicated than a simple, linear heritage of Jewish religous thought.
John's Gospel was not written in an historic or cultural vacuum. This is my first premise. My second premise is that if you examine how Aristotilian-Platonic philosophy influenced Jewish writers in the first century B.C. (i.e., the Book of Wisdom), through the time of Christ (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls of the Essenes), and throughout the first three centuries of the Christian Church (i.e., the writings of St. Augustine of Hippo), you can gain insight into the philosophical and metaphysical assumptions that underlay St. John's Gospel.
I do not know why the KJV translators decided to drop the Book of Wisdom from the protestant canon. My guess would be that the KJV translators felt the Book of Wisdom supported elements of catholic and orthodox theology regarding the relationship between Wisdom (Sophia) and Word (Logos). This relationship is expressed in the Koine term "Theotokos," meaning reference "God Bearer" or "Mother of God" or "God among Us."
Theotokos has enormous implications for understanding the divine revelation of the incarnation. Accurate translation of Koine is not possible without understanding the conceptual categories that make up the language. To do this, scholars in my faith tradition have examined the teachings of Aristotle and Plato, which are foundational to understanding Greek religious thinking at the time of Christ and throughout the first three centures of ecclesia, a time in which Greek writers grappled with understanding "God among Us."
My unstated challenge to you was this: The Protestant evangelical/fundamentalist tradition regarding scripture interpretation is not the only Christian tradition that adheres to scripture as a source of divine authority. There are other faith communities that read and study the Bible. These faith communities approach scripture reading in a very systematic, empirical manner. There is a tradition of New Testament scripture scholarship that includes a very wide range of source materials, including the pre-Christian writings of Aristotle and Plato.
Finally, on a personal level, I find your decision to reference me as "Maria" as disrepectful. Given the context of the particular faith community in which I'm sharing my background in Biblical studies--ex members of The Family--referencing me with that name seems unnessarily aggressive and insensitive.